FANTASTIC AACN - CCRN-ADULT - EXAM CCRN (ADULT) - DIRECT CARE ELIGIBILITY PATHWAY OUTLINE

Fantastic AACN - CCRN-Adult - Exam CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway Outline

Fantastic AACN - CCRN-Adult - Exam CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway Outline

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Tags: Exam CCRN-Adult Outline, Valid Test CCRN-Adult Tips, CCRN-Adult Examcollection Questions Answers, CCRN-Adult Useful Dumps, Exam CCRN-Adult Learning

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AACN CCRN-Adult Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • In musculoskeletal, neurological, and psychosocial areas, the syllabus includes managing trauma, neurological disorders, and behavioral health issues. This emphasizes the holistic approach required in critical care settings. Lastly, multisystem complications such as sepsis and shock states are included to assess the ability to manage life-threatening conditions that affect multiple organ systems.
Topic 2
  • CLINICAL JUDGMENT: This section measures the skills of Critical Care Nurses and covers a wide range of medical conditions across various systems. It includes cardiovascular issues such as acute coronary syndrome, heart failure, and cardiomyopathies, demonstrating the need for in-depth knowledge in managing these critical conditions. The section also addresses respiratory emergencies like pulmonary embolism and ARDS, emphasizing the importance of understanding respiratory failure and chronic conditions.
Topic 4
  • The endocrine, hematology, gastrointestinal, renal, and integumentary domains are also covered, focusing on conditions like diabetes mellitus, acute kidney injury, and infections. This section highlights the need for nurses to manage complex patient scenarios involving multiple systems effectively.

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AACN CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway Sample Questions (Q880-Q885):

NEW QUESTION # 880
The nurse is caring for a patient who requires oral placement of an endotracheal (ET) tube. Which nursing action is a priority when preliminarily confirming proper ET tube placement?

  • A. Obtain a chest x-ray
  • B. Provide frequent oral hygiene
  • C. Auscultate for breath sounds over the stomach
  • D. Anchor the tubing with tape or a special ET fixation device

Answer: C

Explanation:
Though all the answer choices are important nursing interventions to ensure adequate oxygenation to the patient with an ET tube, the nurse's priority when confirming proper ET tube placement is to auscultate for the presence of bilateral breath sounds, along with equal chest excursion during inspiration and the absence of breath sounds over the stomach, to preliminarily confirm proper tube placement. If breath sounds are heard over the stomach, the tube should be pulled out until the nurse can no longer hear breath sounds over the stomach, and can hear them bilaterally in the lung fields.
An end-tidal CO2 with waveform verification monitor is used as an immediate assessment for determining tracheal placement. A portable bedside chest x-ray verifies proper tube placement.
Once proper placement is confirmed, the tube is anchored with either tape or a special ET fixation device to prevent movement. The centimeter marking of the ET tube at the lip is documented and checked during each shift to monitor proper tube placement.


NEW QUESTION # 881
What differentiates sepsis from SIRS (Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome)?

  • A. The presence of an infectious process
  • B. Tachycardia
  • C. Altered organ function
  • D. Temperature > 38.0°C (100.4°F)

Answer: A

Explanation:
SIRS (Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome) is the body's systemic inflammatory response to a variety of severe clinical insults. Sepsis is the manifestation of the SIRS in response to an infectious process. The source of infection can be viral, bacterial, fungal, or rarely even rickettsial or protozoal.
Fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, and elevated WBCs are seen in both SIRS and sepsis, whereas altered organ function is seen in MODS (Multiple Organ Dysfunction).


NEW QUESTION # 882
An Epidural Hematoma (EDH) is usually caused by which of the following?

  • A. A contusion
  • B. A ruptured intracranial aneurysm
  • C. An arterial hemorrhage
  • D. A venous hemorrhage

Answer: C

Explanation:
Epidural Hematoma (EDH): Blood clot located between the dura and the skull. EDH is associated with skull fractures that lacerate an underlying artery and is most common in the temporal region due to tearing of the middle meningeal artery.
Subdural Hematoma (SDH): Bleeding occurs within the subdural space between the dura and arachnoid layer, creating direct pressure on the brain. SDH results from the rupture of the bridging veins between the brain and dura, bleeding from contused or lacerated brain tissue, or extension from an intracerebral hematoma. SDH can be acute, subacute, or chronic.
A ruptured intracranial aneurysm is often the cause of a subarachnoid hemorrhage, as these usually occur in the circle of Willis at arterial bifurcations or trifurcations. A contusion is defined as cortical bruising caused by the brain impacting the inside of the skull.


NEW QUESTION # 883
The critical care nurse is admitting a patient who has Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). The patient is on a chronic treatment regimen for underlying Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH). The critical care nurse understands that which of the following will be TRUE when treating this patient?

  • A. The patient's PAH treatment regimen may need to be modified or temporarily suspended during treatment of her DKA
  • B. Interruption of the patient's PAH treatment regimen will likely be fatal
  • C. The patient's PAH treatment regimen should be continued except where it conflicts with necessary DKA-related treatments
  • D. It is impossible to safely provide the correct treatment for both conditions simultaneously

Answer: B

Explanation:
A chronic regimen of therapy used to treat Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH) must be continued, as interruption of this therapy can cause rebound hypertension that will likely be fatal. Suspending or modifying this treatment regimen is not recommended due to the potential complications that this can cause. It is unlikely that there will a conflict between treating DKA and PAH; however, the DKA therapy would need to be modified if such a conflict did occur.


NEW QUESTION # 884
Which of the following is the mainstay of therapy for patients with Brugada syndrome?

  • A. Beta-blocker therapy
  • B. Cardiac radioablation
  • C. A pacemaker
  • D. An Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillator (ICD)

Answer: D

Explanation:
Brugada syndrome is a genetic cardiac condition that affects cardiac sodium channels and leads to lethal arrhythmias. An ICD is the mainstay of therapy to treat potentially lethal arrhythmias. A pacemaker or cardiac radioablation will not effectively manage Brugada syndrome. Quinidine is the only drug that has been shown to decrease the risk of lethal arrhythmias in patients with Brugada syndrome.


NEW QUESTION # 885
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